I returned to work a couple of weeks ago after a year's maternity leave, going from full time to part time (3 days) on a trial basis. On my first day back I was put at risk of redundancy along with the rest of the team as part as an organisation wide restructure. Whilst some jobs have been match to new jobs in the new structure mine hasn't been even though it is substantially comparable. I will therefore be appealing, but how do I demonstrate it is the same as it is just semantics - my current description is wider and the proposed more focused. My job role changed slightly while I was on maternity leave and the new one also matches the previous role I was fulfilling before I left. The company has stated that maternity cover cannot apply in the pool of jobs in the first instance. However, they have changed my maternity cover to a fixed-term contract the day I came back till end of March so allowing her to also apply. Is this fair? I am also concerned I will be discriminated against as I would wish to do part time. What are my rights? Finally, would any redundancy be calculated on my part time or full-time wage as I am still in a trial and my actual contract hasn't changed?
I am a senior manager of a company and currently on maternity leave. I go back in January after taking about 24 weeks OML. The company I work for have been having finance issues before I left. In the April new management came in. Straight away I sensed the new manager did not like me. I kept on going till I went on leave. The Manager had several meetings with me where he was aggressive towards me. In one meeting I complained about his behaviour towards me. I have this meeting minuted. So I then go on maternity. Two weeks to the day I gave birth I had a missed call from the new manager then an email advising that all staff are at risk of redundancy. Two members of staff were then made redundant in September. Roll foward to now and I am due back in the new year. A member of staff has passed me a document which I believe the boss printed out and left lying about. In the document I am named as being made redundant. From what I can gather this will happen in January. I am full time and have been with the company for over 8 years. Before the new manager came in I was highly regarded in the company. The job description I had was very basic. I was and am able to work and manage any role within the company and I am more flexible than the other managers. I beleive I have been targeted by the manager as I have been away from the business, although I still took calls and emails from staff when issues arose that only I could deal with, including being asked for help ten days after giving birth. Any advice would be much appreciated.
My wife has been on Adoption leave and she requested reduced hours based around being back for nursery/school pick-ups. She requested 5 short days. Her employer has rejected this on the grounds that it is not within the businesses needs and changed the role to include site visits which will involve long distance travel, something which she did a long time ago but had not done this for a few years and her previous line manager had changed her role before the adoption leave for this to be carried out in an alternative way or by other people. The company has undergone recent restructuring, including redundancies. This has not been offered or discussed, but can she request redundancy and if so how does she word the request?
I'm currently on AML and my employer has just told me that my role as head of history at a local school will be made redundant. They have said that I need to apply for a new head of humanities role that has an additional workload and responsibility, but not for any more money. Do they have to advertise the new role externally as well as internally? Can they actually do this while I'm on AML?
My partner is on maternity leave (about 16 weeks in) and her position is being made redundant. She was informed there is a role which she could apply for and be assessed on to see if she is suitable. Unaware of the law, she attended an assessment against other people who were currently in the business and not on maternity leave and scored poorly. Consequently the job was given to someone else who didn't have the same skills, previous experience or performance record as my partner but did score well on the assessment day. Would we be right is assuming this was discriminatory?